Check Point Certified Security Expert R80 (CCSE‑R80) Practice Exam

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• Which command lists all tables in Gaia?
• Which Check Point products protect BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?
• What feature enables the Check Point firewall to manage traffic based on the state of the connection?
• Which type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?
• Which Check Point feature enhances email security by reviewing attachments before delivery?
• Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?
• R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?
• What is the primary role of Check Point ThreatCloud?
• Automatic affinity, when SecureXL is running, is reset every how many seconds?
• Which features are supported only with R80.10 Gateways but not with R77.x?
• Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct command to import a host object called Server_1 into the CLI?
• Which feature can help optimize Security Gateway performance in high traffic situations?
• What is the most efficient way for Jack to create multiple policies using R80 security management?
• In Check Point architecture, what does the term "ClusterXL" refer to?
• How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?
• Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Servers showing port numbers and protocol names?
• Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?
• SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure attacks are prevented in real-time. Which of the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?
• Which command provides the status of the Cluster Members?
• In R80, what is the function of the Management API?
• What is the correct order of log flow processed by SmartEvent components?
• After installing a new multicore CPU in the Security Gateway, what additional task must the administrator perform?
• What API command should a Firewall Administrator use to create 100 new host objects with unique IP addresses?
• Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns?
• Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?
• Which statement is true regarding redundancy?
• Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?
• When a PDF file is opened and the content is missing components such as graphs and tables, which component of SandBlast protection is likely being used?
• What tool is best suited for checking the connectivity and performance of a Check Point Security Gateway?
• To retrieve the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, which command should be executed?
• What is a new feature of the R80.10 Gateway that was not present in R77.X and older versions?
• When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?
• Which command is used for collecting diagnostic data for analyzing customer setups remotely?
• What is the best synchronization method in a ClusterXL deployment?
• Which of the following functions does the CPD daemon NOT perform?
• Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is particularly used for which configuration?
• Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
• What processes does the fwd process on the Security Gateway use to send logs to the Management Server?
• How many options are available in SmartEvent to calculate traffic direction?
• Which command shows the actual allowed connections in the state table?
• What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?
• Which CLI command should be run on all cluster members to ensure VMAC mode is enabled?
• In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?
• Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?
• What happens when the IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?
• Which feature in Check Point ensures that a gateway can failover without a loss of continuity?
• Which technology is responsible for extracting detailed information from packets and storing that information in state tables?
• The Event List within the Event tab contains:
• Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?
• Which of the following authentication methods are NOT used for Mobile Access?
• In Check Point terminology, a High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment as a ________ cluster.
• What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
• Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
• What is the purpose of NAT in a firewall?
• Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.
• What is the command to check the cluster status in CLI expert mode?
• Which command is used to show the installed licenses in Check Point configuration?
• Which port is used for full synchronization between cluster members in the Firewall Kernel?
• What is the default port for the Web User Interface on a Security Gateway installed on GAIA R80?
• Which command would you run to view interface information related to cluster health?
• In which mode is the Check Point Security Gateway typically configured?
• Does SecureXL improve both non-encrypted traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput?
• Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?
• What is the recommended threshold for configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries?
• Connections to the Check Point R80 Web API use what protocol?
• During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, how are packets rejected by the rule definition handled?
• Which tool generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report?
• What is the primary purpose of Time Objects in security rules?
• Which tool is used to visualize logs and monitor traffic in Check Point systems?
• What is the main function of the fwm process in Check Point management?
• Which feature in R80 permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specific time period?
• From a SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow?
• When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?
• Which HTTP header option is used to pass session unique identifiers to the web API?
• Which of the following is true about Time Objects?
• NAT rules are prioritized in which order?
• Which feature helps in dynamic detection of threats using threat intelligence?
• What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?
• On R80.10, what is the default port used by the Log Server for Third-Party devices reading logs through LEA?
• Where can Jim review the behavior of cluster member recovery for the Security Gateway cluster, Jonas?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point SandBlast?
• What is one of the main tasks of the Check Point Management (cpm) process?
• Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?
• How many rules are required for a Check Point Firewall connection from IP address 192.168.20.13 to www.Check Point.com?
• Which option is not valid for configuring VPN Tunnel sharing?
• Which Check Point process is responsible for receiving log records from the Security Gateway?
• CoreXL is supported when which feature is enabled?
• In R80, spoofing is defined as a method of:
• Which Check Point feature allows for the automatic tracking of session states?
• What TCP port does Check Point Management (cpm) use for communication with the GUI client?
• What is a feature that enables VPN connections to maintain a secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?
• Which CLI command resets the IPS pattern matcher statistics?
• What does the Check Point ThreatCloud primarily function as?
• In a Client to Server scenario, what indicates that the packet has already checked the tables and the Rule Base?
• What kind of files can Threat Extraction work on, according to its designed capabilities?
• What does the term 'gateway-based' refer to in VPN configurations?
• Which CLI utility allows an administrator to capture traffic along the firewall inspection chain?
• When using ClusterXL, which statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?
• Which command displays the status of the interface?
• You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or ______ action for the file types.
• How many interfaces does each cluster have in Check Point architecture?
• What is the name of the R80 SmartEvent Web application for real-time event monitoring?
• What command would you use to view the current kernel's usage statistics for installed software blades?
• Which NAT rules receive priority first in Check Point configuration?
• In R80.10, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?
• What TCP port does the Check Point Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicate over with the Security Gateway/Cluster Members?
• Which limitation of CoreXL is mitigated by using Multi-Queue?
• Which statement correctly identifies the capabilities of Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace?
• What is the primary function of the SandBlast Agent?
• Which of the following changes can NOT be made using Check Point APIs?
• Which of the following processes pulls application monitoring status?
• You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?
• What best describes the benefit of SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
• Fill in the blank: The R80 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows them as prioritized security events.
• What is a new feature in R80.10 Gateway that was not available in R77.X and older?
• To optimize packet drops using Priorities Queues, which command should you use to enable Dynamic Dispatcher?
• Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?
• Which Threat Prevention Profile is NOT included by default in R80 Management?
• John is using Management HA. Which SmartCenter should he connect to for making changes?
• What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?
• Which of the following is true about Capsule Connect?
• What is the most accurate CLI command to get information about assignment of all CPUs in your Security Gateway?
• What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?
• Which command line tool is often used for troubleshooting connectivity issues in Check Point?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a Check Point API?
• Which of these is a method to enforce exit and entry points for data traffic?
• What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?
• Under which file is the proxy ARP configuration stored?
• What type of policies allow finer control and customization over security rules within Check Point?
• Which ClusterXL mode utilizes a non-unicast MAC address for the cluster IP address?
• When requiring certificates for mobile devices, which authentication method must be set?
• What would be a primary focus when implementing security policies on cloud environments?
• To add a company logo to reports, where would you copy the PNG file on the SmartEvent Server?
• After backing up Check Point configurations without OS information, which command restores this backup?
• What is true about the IPS-Blade?
• What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?
• What is the difference between an event and a log?
• Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?
• Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?
• Which feature is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?
• Which is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?
• How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
• Can a Check Point gateway perform translations for both source and destination IP addresses in a packet?
• Which command allows administrators to configure synchronization settings in clustered environments?
• What factors exclude SecureXL templating?
• fwssd is a child process of which Check Point daemon?
• Dynamic Dispatcher is used to help manage processor loads in which modes?
• Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
• Which SecureXL template is enabled by default on the Security Gateway?
• What is ClusterXL primarily used for in Check Point implementations?
• Which types of Check Point APIs are available as part of the R80.10 code?
• Which protocol is primarily used for secure communications in Check Point firewalls?
• What are the three primary components of Check Point Capsule?
• What is the primary function of the Security Gateway in a Check Point environment?
• What factor precludes Secure XL Templating?
• Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______.
• Which approach configures individual policies for each application in Mobile Access Endpoint Compliance Settings?
• What is the purpose of Anti-Spoofing in Check Point?
• How does Threat Extraction generally function?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?
• What command is used to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?
• What component of SmartEvent is responsible for creating events?
• What command provides the most complete restoration of an R80 configuration?
• Which statement is true about VRRP implementations?
• Which command is utilized to remove kernel modules in Check Point?
• Which component specifically focuses on extracting active content to prevent threats?
• In Logging and Monitoring, which option can you add to each log type, including Log, Detailed Log, and Extended Log?
• What is used specifically for state synchronization in clustered environments?
• What is the purpose of the Sticky Decision Function (SDF) in an Active-Active cluster?
• What component of R80 Management is utilized for indexing?
• To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway, which command should be executed in Expert mode?
• What distinguishes Advanced Approach within Mobile Access settings?
• Which of the following cannot be done using Check Point APIs?
• Which lightweight app should you use to gather and analyze threats on your mobile device?
• What happens to traffic when a Security Gateway is configured in Drop Mode?
• Which deployments modes are available for SandBlast Appliances?
• In a distributed deployment of Check Point R80, how many machines are required excluding the SmartConsole machine?
• On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API), the default Log Server uses port:
• Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
• During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs, which host having a Critical Severity event should you try to remediate first?